Environment and Ecology | Practice Questions 01
Q1. Genetic variation between distinct populations of the same species is known as : [RRB JE IT 2019] (a) Genetic diversity (b) Bio diversity (c) Ecosystem diversity (d) Species diversity
Q2. Species which has restricted distribution is called [CTET 2021] (a) Eco species (b) Endemic (c) Sympatric (d) Allopatric
Q3. Natural sources of air pollution are [SSC CGL 2014] (a) Forest fires (b) Volcanic eruptions (c) Dust storm (d) Smoke from burning dry leaves
Q4. Which one of the following is the correct sequence of ecosystems in the order of decreasing productivity ? [UPSC CSE 2013] (a) Oceans, lakes, grasslands mangroves (b) mangroves, oceans, grasslands, lakes (c) Mangroves, grasslands, lakes, oceans (d) Oceans, mangroves, lakes, grasslands
Q5. Which of the following metals contribute to to biomagnification problem in the ecosystem ? (a) Mercury (b) Copper (c) Chromium (d) Lead
Q6. What is the percentage coverage of Tropical Forest on earth’s landmass ? (a) 7 (b) 17 (c) 12 (d) 25
Q7. Which of the following phenomena is supposedly associated with global warming ? (a) Southern Oscillations (b) El Nino (c) La Nino (d) El Nino Modiki
Q8. Taiga means : (a) Decidious forests (b) Coniferous forests (c) Grass lands (d) Deserts
Q9. Virtually treeless, sparse vegetation is found in : (a) Taiga (b) Alpine (c) Tundra (d) Chapparal
Q10. Which of the following exhibits unidirectional flow in an ecosystem ? (a) Light (b) Energy (c) Water (d) Biomass
Q11. Arrange the following events in chronological order and choose the correct answer from the code given below. I. Rio Earth Summit II. Publication of Brundtland Commission Report III. Enactment of Montreal Protocol IV. Publication of ‘The Limits to Growth’ Report. Choose the correct answer from the code given below. Code: (a) I, IV, III, II (b) IV, II, III, I (c) IV, III, II, I (d) IV, I, III, I
Q12. In 1987, the discussion on ‘Sustainable Development’ started after the presentation of a report related to environment in the United Nations. That report was – (a) First report on climate change (b) Our Common Future (c) Second report on climate change (d) Fifth assessment report
Q13. The most important role of solar radiation is in- (a) Carbon cycle (b) Hydrogen cycle (c) Water cycle (d) Nitrogen cycle
Q14. The amount of rainfall depends on- (a) air pressure (b) humidity in the atmosphere (c) water cycle (d) temperature
Q15. Many transplanted plants do not grow because: (a) The new soil does not contain the required minerals. (b) Most of the root hairs cling to the new soil more tightly. (c) Most of the root hairs are destroyed during transplantation. (d) Leaves are damaged during transplantation.
Q16. Consider the following statements- 1. Sustainable Development Goals were first proposed in 1972 by a global think tank called the ‘Club of Rome’. 2. Sustainable Development Goals are to be achieved by 2030. Which of the statements given above is/are correct ? (a) Only 1 (b) Only 2 (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Q17. With reference to ‘Agenda 21’, sometimes seen in the news, consider the following statements : 1. It is a global action plan for sustainable development. 2. It originated in the World Summit on Sustainable Development held in Johannesburg in 2002. Which of the statements given above is/are correct ? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Q18. Earth Summit +5 was held in – (a) 2005 (b) 2000 (c) 1999 (d) 1997
Q19. What was the title of the Rio-20 Declaration ? (a) The Future We Want (b) The Future We Seek (c) The Future We Have (d) The Future We See
Q20. The Partnership for action on Green economy (PAGE), a UN mechanism to assist countries transistion towards greener and more inclusive economies, emerged at ? (a) The Earth summit on Sustainable Development 2002, Johannesburg (b) The United Nations Conference on Sustainable Development 2012, Rio de Janeiro (c) The United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change 2015, Paris (d) The World Sustainable Development Summit 2016, New Delhi
Q21. National Environmental Engineering Research Institute (NEERI) is located in – (a) Bangalore (b) Hyderabad (c) Nagpur (d) New Delhi
Q22. When and where was National Environmental Engineering Research Institute (NEERI) established ? (a) 1970, Dhanbad (b) 1958, Nagpur (c) 1956, New Delhi (d) 1960, Chennai
Q23. N.E.A. means – (a) National Environment Act (b) National Environment Authority (c) National Examination Agency (d) National Events Association
Q24. The headquarters of the World Meteorological Organization is located in – (a) Geneva (b) Rome (c) Sydney (d) Tokyo
Q25. The headquarters of UNEP is located in – (a) Geneva (b) Kavamdu (c) Nairobi (d) New Delhi
Q26. The full form of EPA is – (a) Environmental Pollution Agency (b) Environmental Prohibition Agency (c) Environmental Protection Agency (d) None of the above
Q27. The headquarters of Green Peace International is located in – (a) Amsterdam (b) Canberra (c) Ottawa (d) Nagasaki
Q28. The Genetic Engineering Approval Committee has been constituted under which of the following ? (a) Food Safety and Standards Act, 2006 (b) Geographical Indications of Goods Act, 1994 (c) Environment (Protection) Act, 1986 (d) Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972
Q29. Which of the following is related to the preservation of environmental balance ? 1. Forest Policy 2. Environment (Protection) Act, 1986 3. Industrial Policy 4. Mila Policy Select the correct answer using the code given below – (a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3 (c) 1,2 and 3 (d) All four
Q30. To mark environment friendly consumer products, the government has introduced- (a) Agmark (b) Ecomark (c) ISI Mark (d) Water Mark
Q31. The book ‘Silent Spring’, published in 1962, which gave impetus to the world’s environmental movement, is written by- (a) Caroline Merchant (b) Karl Marx (c) Rachel Carson (d) Rajagopalan
Q32. The author of ‘Green Development’ is – (a) M.J. Bradshaw (b) M. Nicholson (c) R.H. Whitaker (d) W.M. Adams
Q33. The inventor of natural farming is – (a) Masanobu Fukuoka (b) M.S. Randhawa (c) M.S. Swaminathan (d) Norman Borlaug
Q34. Who started the ‘Green Army’ for environmental protection ? (a) Japan (b) China (c) Australia (d) Egypt
Q35. In the mid-eighties of the twentieth century, the negative aspects of development were discussed in detail. Which one of the following was not important among them ? (a) Depletion of natural resources (b) Environmental pollution (c) Politics and development (d) Displacement and rehabilitation of the common people
Q36. Plachimada, which was in news due to immense environmental damage, is located in – (a) Karnataka (b) Konkan (c) Kerala (d) Tamil Nadu
Q37. Greenwash refers to – (a) promotion of shifting agriculture (b) purification of river water (c) removal of greenery (d) making false promises of environmental protection
Q38. Which of the following states of India has recently started ‘Green House Farming’ ? (a) Haryana (b) Punjab (c) Maharashtra (d) Uttar Pradesh
Q39. The concept of ‘ecosystem’ was proposed by – (a) G. Taylor (b) E. Huntington (c) D.R. Stoddart (d) Tansley
Q40. Which of the following is the largest ecosystem on Earth ? (a) Hydrosphere (b) Biome (c) Lithosphere (d) Biosphere
Q50. The exact place where an organism lives is called – (a) Habitat (b) Ecosystem (c) Niche (d) Biome
Q51. Which one of the following is the best description of the term ‘ecosystem’ ? (a) A community of organisms interacting with one another. (b) That part of the Earth which is inhabited by living organisms. (c) A community of organisms together with the environment in which they live (d) The flora and fauna of a geographical area
Q52. Which of the following is the correct order of biological organisation from organism to biosphere ? (a) Population Ecosystem Community Landscape (b) Landscape Community Ecosystem Population (c) Population Community Ecosystem Landscape (d) Population Landscape Community Ecosystem
Q53. The limit to the number of organisms in a given area that the environment can support is called (a) Population (b) Carrying capacity (c) Pyramid of numbers or bio-mass (d) None of the above
Q54. Which one of the following terms describes not only the niche occupied by an organism but also its functional role in a community of organisms? (a) Ecotone (b) Ecological function (c) Habitat (d) Habitat area
Q55. Which one of the following is not a biotic component of an ecosystem? (a) Air (c) Bacteria (b) Plants (d) Animals
Q56. If due to some reasons there is a major decline in the number of butterfly species, what could be its possible consequences? 1. Pollination of some plants may be adversely affected. 2. Fungal infection may increase rapidly in some cultivated plants. 3. This may cause a decline in the population of some species of wasps, spiders and birds. Select the correct answer using the code given below- (a) Only 1 (b) Only 2 and 3 (c) Only 1 and 3 (d) 1,2 and 3
Q57. The main primary producers in marine environment are – (a) Phytoplanktons (b) Marine weeds (c) Marine angiosperms (d) Aquatic bryophytes
Q58. Which of the following is a producer among the biological components of an ecosystem ? (a) Cow (b) Peacock (c) Tiger (d) Green plants
Q59. Which of the following acts as a middleman between biotic and abiotic components? (a) Parasite (b) Decomposer (c) Producer (d) Consumer
Q60. Consider the following statements with reference to ecosystem – 1. Production at autotrophic (autotrophic) level is called primary productivity. 2. Secondary productivity refers to production at heterotrophic (heterotrophic) level. The correct statement(s) among the above is/are – (a) Only 1 (b) Only 2 (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Q61. With reference to food chains in an ecosystem, which of the following type(s) of organisms is/are called decomposer organisms? 1. Virus 2. Fungi 3. Bacteria Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1,2 and 3
Q62. Which one of the following is the correct order of a food chain ? (a) Diatoms-Crustaceans-Herring (b) Crustaceans-Diatoms-Herring (c) Diatoms-Herring-Crustaceans (d) Crustaceans-Herring-Diatoms
Q63. Which of the following statements is correct ? (a) The flow of energy in a biosphere is unidirectional. (b) The flow of energy in a biosphere is cyclic. (c) In natural ecosystems, the relative loss of energy decreases with increasing trophic level. (d) With progressively increasing trophic levels, species become less efficient in using the available energy.
Q64. The pyramid of energy in any ecosystem is ? (a) Always upright (b) Maybe upright and inverted (c) Always inverted (d) None of the above
Q65. The highest nutritional level in an ecosystem is attained by- (a) Herbivorous (b) Carnivorous (c) Omnivorous (d) Decomposers
Q66. Which of the following statements regarding Bionomics are correct ? 1. It literally means ‘management of life’. 2. It is a synonym of ecology. 3. It emphasises the value of natural systems which influence human systems. Code : (a) Only 1 (b) 1 and 2 (c) 2 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 3
Q67. After the introduction of DDT in the ecosystem, which one of the following organisms would probably show its maximum concentration ? (a) Grasshopper (b) Toad (c) Snake (d) Cattle
Q68. In which of the following biogeochemical cycles, weathering of rocks is the main source of release of nutrients entering the cycle ? (a) Carbon cycle (b) Nitrogen cycle (c) Phosphorus cycle (d) Sulphur cycle
Q69. What is the cycling of elements in an ecosystem called ? (a) Chemical cycle (b) Biogeochemical cycle (c) Geological cycle (d) Geochemical cycle
Q70. In grasslands, trees do not replace grasses as part of ecological succession because of (a) Insects and fungi
(b) Limited sunlight and lack of nutrients (c) Water limitations and fires (d) None of the above
Q71. Which of the following is the signature sequence of stages of biological sequencing ? (a) Nudification, Travel, Establishment, Reaction, Stabilization (b) Travel, stripping, establishment, reaction, stabilization (c) Installation, travel, stripping, reaction, stabilization (d) Stabilization, reaction, stripping, travel, establishment
Q72. The concept of ‘ecological transition’ was first used by – (a) Elton (b) Bennett (c) Berkeley (d) Ratzel
Q73. The sequence of communities which change gradually at a particular place is called – (a) Ecological succession (b) Seer (c) Community dynamics (d) Pyramid of biomass
Q74. ‘Ecology is permanent frugality’- this is the slogan of which movement ? (a) Epico Movement (b) Narmada Bachao Andolan (c) Chipko Movement (d) None of the above
Q75. The unit of measurement of ecological footprint is – (a) Global hectare (b) Nanometre (c) Hoppus cubic foot (d) Cubic ton
Q76. What is the minimum land required to fully sustain a human being called ? (a) Biota (b) Ecological footprint (c) Biome (d) Niche
Q77. Which of the following statements best describes the term ‘social cost of carbon’, As an economic value, it is a measure of which of the following ? (a) The long-term damage caused by the emission of one ton of CO2 in a given year (b) A country’s need for fossil fuels, which the country burns to provide goods and services to its citizens (c) The efforts made by a climate refugee to adapt to a new place (d) The carbon footprint contributed by an individual on planet Earth
Q78. The ‘Millennium Ecosystem Assessment’ describes the following major classes of ecosystem services- provisioning, support, control, conservation and cultural. Which of the following is a support service ? (a) Production of food and water (b) Control of climate and disease (c) Nutrient cycling and crop pollination (d) Diversity maintenance
Q79. An example of ‘lentic habitat’ in a freshwater community is – (a) Pond and swamp (b) Waterfall and river (c) Pond and river (d) All of the above
Q80. The transition zone between two different communities is called – (a) Ecotype (b) Icad (c) Ecosphere (d) Ecotone
Q81. Which one of the following is the correct sequence of ecosystems in the order of decreasing productivity ? (a) Ocean, Lake, Grassland, Mangrove (b) Mangrove, Ocean, Grassland, Lake (c) Mangrove, Grassland, Lake, Ocean (d) Ocean, Mangrove, Lake, Grassland
Q82. Who among the following first used the term ‘deep ecology’ ? (a) E.P. Odum (b) C. Raunkiær (c) F.E. Clements (d) Arnes Naess
Q83. Monoclimax theory was propounded by – (a) F.E. Clements (b) C.C. Park (c) D.V. Agar (d) S.J. Gould
Q84. The concept of ecological niche was propounded by – (a) Grinnell (b) Darwin (c) E.P. Odum (d) C.C. Park
Q85. Which of the following represents the density gradient in a water body ? (a) Eocline (b) Halocline (c) Pycnocline (d) Thermocline
Q86. How many agreements are there in Agenda-21 ? (a) 4 (b) 5 (c) 6 (d) 7
Q87. When was the Agmark Act implemented in India ? (a) In 1937 (b) In 1952 (c) In 1957 (d) In 1965
Q88. Which one of the mathematical indices of measuring biodiversity represents the mean species diversity in a community/residential area at the local level ? (a) Alpha Index (b) Beta Index (c) Gamma Index (d) None of these
Q89. India has set a target to achieve land degradation neutrality- (a) By 2025 (b) By 2030 (c) By 2035 (d) By 2040
Q90. Who among the following first used the term ‘Biodiversity’ ? (a) C.J. Barrow (b) D. Castree (c) Walter G. Rosen (d) D. R. Battish
Q91. The United Nations has declared the decade 2011-2020 as- (a) Decade of Biodiversity (b) Decade of Pollution (c) Decade of Space Technology (d) Decade of Animal Health
Q92. India’s first National Centre for Marine Biodiversity (NCMB) is located in which city ? (a) Bhavnagar (b) Jamnagar (c) Mumbai (d) Puducherry
Q93. Average noise levels in heavy traffic zones in major cities in India are generally in which of the following ranges of noise levels ? (a) 31-40 dBA (b) 41-50 dBA (c) 70-95 dBA (d) 110-120 dBA
Q94. The Montreal Protocol refers to : (a) Cooperation among UN member countries to combat climate change (b) Phasing out the consumption and production of ozone-depleting substances (c) Ensuring environmental sustainability (d) Safeguarding the societal quality of life worldwide
Answer : 1 (a), 2 (b), 3 (b), 4 (c), 5 (a), 6 (a), 7 (d), 8 (b), 9 (c), 10 (b), 11 (b), 12 (b), 13 (c), 14 (b), 15 (c), 16 (b), 17 (a), 18 (d), 19 (a), 20 (b), 21 (c), 22 (b), 23 (b), 24 (a), 25 (c), 26 (c), 27 (a), 28 (c), 29 (d), 30 (b), 31 (c), 32 (d), 33 (a), 34 (c), 35 (c), 36 (c), 37 (d), 38 (b), 39 (d), 40 (d)… 50 (a), 51 (b) 52 (c), 53 (b), 54 (b), 55 (a), 56 (c), 57 (a), 58 (d), 59 (c), 60 (c), 61 (b), 62 (a), 63 (a), 64 (a), 65 (c), 66 (c), 67 (c), 68 (c), 69 (b), 70 (c), 71 (a), 72 (b), 73 (b), 74 (c), 75 (a), 76 (b), 77 (a), 78 (c), 79 (a), 80 (d), 81 (c), 82 (d), 83 (a), 84 (a), 85 (c), 86 (a), 87 (a), 88 (a), 89 (b), 90 (c), 91 (a), 92 (b), 93 (c), 94 (b), 95 (), 96 (), 97 (), 98 (), 99 (), 100 ().
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Environment and Ecology | Quiz
